DPDP Rules, 2025: every rule and when it applies
All 23 Digital Personal Data Protection Rules and the seven Schedules, read from the Gazette text, with the date each one starts and what it asks of a business.
Last updated 22 October 2026
What are the DPDP Rules, 2025?
The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 (G.S.R. 846(E), published 13 November 2025) are 23 rules and seven Schedules that set out how the DPDP Act works in practice. They phase in: Board rules at once, Consent Manager rules from 13 November 2026, and the duties on businesses from 13 May 2027.
What does each of the 23 DPDP Rules cover?
The DPDP Rules, 2025 were notified by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology under section 40 of the DPDP Act, 2023 and published in the Gazette on 13 November 2025 (PIB release). Rule 1 sets three commencement dates. The Act’s own sections were brought into force on the same three dates by G.S.R. 843(E) (Act commencement notification), so the duties on businesses in both the Act and the Rules, and the Act’s penalties, apply from 13 May 2027.
| Rule | What it covers | In force from |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Short title and commencement: the three-stage start | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 2 | Definitions, including “user account” and “verifiable consent” | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 3 | What a Data Fiduciary’s notice to a Data Principal must contain | 13 May 2027 |
| 4 | Registration and obligations of Consent Managers (First Schedule) | 13 Nov 2026 |
| 5 | Processing by the State for subsidies, benefits, services, certificates, licences and permits (Second Schedule) | 13 May 2027 |
| 6 | Minimum reasonable security safeguards | 13 May 2027 |
| 7 | Intimation of a personal data breach to Data Principals and the Board | 13 May 2027 |
| 8 | When a purpose is deemed no longer served; erasure, the 48-hour warning and one-year log retention (Third and Seventh Schedules) | 13 May 2027 |
| 9 | Publishing the contact details of the person who answers questions on processing | 13 May 2027 |
| 10 | Verifiable consent of a parent before processing a child’s data | 13 May 2027 |
| 11 | Verifiable consent of the lawful guardian of a person with disability | 13 May 2027 |
| 12 | Exemptions from section 9(1) and 9(3) for some classes and purposes (Fourth Schedule) | 13 May 2027 |
| 13 | Additional obligations of Significant Data Fiduciaries | 13 May 2027 |
| 14 | How Data Principals exercise their rights, grievance response within 90 days, nomination | 13 May 2027 |
| 15 | Transfer of personal data outside India | 13 May 2027 |
| 16 | Exemption for research, archiving and statistical purposes (Second Schedule) | 13 May 2027 |
| 17 | Search-cum-Selection Committees and appointment of the Board’s Chairperson and Members | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 18 | Salary, allowances and service terms of the Chairperson and Members (Fifth Schedule) | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 19 | Board meetings, quorum, authentication of orders and the six-month inquiry timeline | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 20 | The Board functioning as a digital office | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 21 | Officers and employees of the Board (Sixth Schedule) | 13 Nov 2025 |
| 22 | Appeals to the Appellate Tribunal, filed digitally | 13 May 2027 |
| 23 | Central Government calling for information from Data Fiduciaries and intermediaries (Seventh Schedule) | 13 May 2027 |
What do the seven Schedules contain?
| Schedule | Linked to | What it sets out |
|---|---|---|
| First Schedule | Rule 4 | Part A: conditions for registering as a Consent Manager; Part B: a Consent Manager’s obligations |
| Second Schedule | Rules 5 and 16 | Standards for State processing under section 7(b) and for research, archiving and statistics under section 17(2)(b) |
| Third Schedule | Rule 8(1) | Classes of Data Fiduciaries that must erase data after three years of inactivity |
| Fourth Schedule | Rule 12 | Part A: classes of Data Fiduciaries, and Part B: purposes, exempt from section 9(1) and 9(3) for children |
| Fifth Schedule | Rule 18 | Salary and service terms of the Board’s Chairperson and Members |
| Sixth Schedule | Rule 21(2) | Service terms of the Board’s officers and employees |
| Seventh Schedule | Rules 8(3) and 23(1) | Purposes for which the Government may call for information, and the authorised person for each |
What must a DPDP notice contain, and how do Consent Managers work?
Notice (Rule 3)
A Data Fiduciary’s notice must:
- stand on its own, understandable without any other information the Data Fiduciary provides;
- give, in clear and plain language, an itemised description of the personal data and the specified purpose, with a specific description of the goods, services or uses the processing enables;
- give the link to the website or app, and any other means, through which the Data Principal can withdraw consent as easily as she gave it, exercise her rights and complain to the Board.
Section 5(3) of the Act adds that the notice must be available in English or any language in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. Try the free privacy notice generator.
Consent Managers (Rule 4)
A Consent Manager is registered by the Board after it checks the First Schedule conditions, which include being a company incorporated in India with a net worth of at least two crore rupees, and having its platform independently certified against the Board’s data protection standards. Once registered, a Consent Manager must, among other things, keep records of consents given, denied or withdrawn for at least seven years, ensure it cannot read the personal data it routes, not sub-contract its obligations, act in a fiduciary capacity towards the Data Principal and avoid conflicts of interest with Data Fiduciaries. The Board can suspend or cancel a registration (Rule 4(5)). More on the Consent Manager page.
What security safeguards and breach timelines do the Rules set?
Reasonable security safeguards (Rule 6)
At the minimum, a Data Fiduciary’s safeguards must include:
- data security measures such as encryption, obfuscation, masking or virtual tokens;
- access control over the computer resources used by it and its Data Processors;
- logs, monitoring and review to detect, investigate and remedy unauthorised access;
- measures such as data backups to keep processing going after a compromise;
- keeping those logs and personal data for one year, unless another law requires otherwise;
- security clauses in contracts with Data Processors;
- technical and organisational measures to make all of this work in practice.
Breach intimation (Rule 7)
| To whom | When | What |
|---|---|---|
| Each affected Data Principal | Without delay, on becoming aware of the breach | Nature, extent and timing; likely consequences for her; mitigation measures; steps she can take; a contact who can answer her questions. Sent through her user account or a registered mode of communication |
| Data Protection Board (first intimation) | Without delay | Description of the breach: nature, extent, timing, location and likely impact |
| Data Protection Board (detailed report) | Within seventy-two hours of becoming aware, or longer if the Board allows on a written request | Updated details; facts, circumstances and reasons; mitigation; findings on who caused it; remedial measures; a report on the intimations sent to Data Principals |
When must personal data be erased under the DPDP Rules?
Section 8(7) of the Act requires erasure once the purpose is no longer served, unless a law requires retention. Rule 8 and the Third Schedule fix when the purpose is deemed no longer served for three classes of Data Fiduciaries:
| Class of Data Fiduciary | Erase after |
|---|---|
| E-commerce entity with not less than two crore registered users in India | Three years from the Data Principal’s last approach or exercise of rights, or from the commencement of the Rules, whichever is latest |
| Online gaming intermediary with not less than fifty lakh registered users in India | Same three-year period |
| Social media intermediary with not less than two crore registered users in India | Same three-year period |
- 48-hour warning. At least forty-eight hours before the erasure period ends, the Data Fiduciary must tell the Data Principal her data will be erased unless she logs in or otherwise makes contact (Rule 8(2)).
- One-year minimum retention. Every Data Fiduciary must keep personal data, associated traffic data and processing logs for at least one year from the date of processing, for the Seventh Schedule purposes, and make its Data Processors do the same (Rule 8(3)).
Rule 9 adds that every Data Fiduciary must prominently publish the contact details of its Data Protection Officer or a person who can answer questions about processing, and mention them in every response to a rights request.
How do the Rules handle children’s data?
Rule 10 requires a Data Fiduciary to make sure verifiable consent of a parent is obtained before processing any personal data of a child, and to check that the person identifying as the parent is an identifiable adult. It can rely on reliable identity and age details it already holds, or on details provided voluntarily, either directly or through a virtual token issued by an authorised entity, including through a Digital Locker service provider.
Rule 11 requires due diligence that a person claiming to be the lawful guardian of a person with disability was appointed by a court, a designated authority or a local level committee under the applicable guardianship law.
Rule 12 and the Fourth Schedule lift the parental-consent and no-tracking rules (section 9(1) and 9(3)) in limited cases, each restricted to what is necessary:
- Clinical establishments, mental health establishments, healthcare and allied healthcare professionals, for health services to the child.
- Educational institutions, for tracking and behavioural monitoring for educational activities or children’s safety.
- Crèches and child day care centres, and those engaged to transport enrolled children, for safety and location tracking.
- Purposes such as creating an email-only user account, tracking a child’s real-time location for her safety, blocking harmful content and advertising, and confirming that a user is not a child.
What do the Rules say about Significant Data Fiduciaries, rights and transfers?
Significant Data Fiduciaries (Rule 13)
- A Data Protection Impact Assessment and an audit once every twelve months from notification, with a report of significant observations furnished to the Board.
- Due diligence that technical measures, including algorithmic software, are not likely to pose a risk to Data Principals’ rights.
- Personal data the Central Government specifies, on a committee’s recommendation, must not be transferred outside India, along with the traffic data on its flow.
Data Principal rights (Rule 14)
- Data Fiduciaries and Consent Managers must prominently publish how to make a rights request and what identifier, such as a username, customer number or email address, is needed.
- They must publish the period for responding to grievances, which cannot exceed ninety days, and have measures in place to meet it.
- A Data Principal may nominate one or more individuals to exercise her rights.
Transfers outside India (Rule 15)
Personal data may be transferred outside India, subject to any requirements the Central Government specifies by general or special order about making it available to a foreign State or any person or entity under its control.
What do the remaining rules cover?
- Rule 16: the Act does not apply to processing for research, archiving or statistics carried on under the Second Schedule standards.
- Rules 17 to 21: the Board’s Chairperson and Members are recommended by Search-cum-Selection Committees; one-third of the membership is the quorum; an inquiry must finish within six months of the intimation or complaint, extendable by up to three months at a time; and the Board works as a digital office.
- Rule 22: appeals to the Appellate Tribunal are filed digitally, with the fee applicable to appeals under the TRAI Act, 1997, payable through UPI or another RBI-authorised system.
- Rule 23: the Central Government may require a Data Fiduciary or intermediary to furnish information for the Seventh Schedule purposes, and may bar disclosure of that request where sovereignty or security is at stake.
Breaching a rule that has no specific penalty can draw up to ₹50 crore under item 7 of the Schedule to the Act.
How will the Perimattic DPDP Compliance Suite map to the Rules?
- Notice builder covering the Rule 3 items, in English and Eighth Schedule languages.
- Breach response workflow for the Rule 7 intimations to Data Principals and the Board.
- Retention and erasure schedules for Rule 8, including the 48-hour pre-erasure intimation.
- Verifiable parental consent workflow for Rule 10.
- Rights requests with response-time tracking for Rule 14.
- Processor register and contract tracking for the Rule 6(1)(f) contract clauses.
Status: The Perimattic DPDP Compliance Suite is in development; none of this is available to use yet. See the DPDP Compliance Suite overview.
General guidance, not legal advice. Checked against the DPDP Act, 2023 and DPDP Rules, 2025 on 22 October 2026.
More on the DPDP Rules
The DPDP Rules, answered
When do the DPDP Rules, 2025 come into force?
In three stages under Rule 1. Rules 1, 2 and 17 to 21 came into force on publication, 13 November 2025. Rule 4 on Consent Managers comes into force one year after publication, on 13 November 2026. Rules 3, 5 to 16, 22 and 23 come into force eighteen months after publication, on 13 May 2027.
How quickly must a personal data breach be reported under the DPDP Rules?
Under Rule 7, the Data Fiduciary must tell each affected Data Principal and the Data Protection Board without delay on becoming aware of the breach. A detailed report to the Board, covering the facts, causes, mitigation, remedial steps and the intimations sent, is due within seventy-two hours, or a longer period the Board allows on a written request.
How long must logs be kept under the DPDP Rules?
At least one year. Rule 6(1)(e) requires logs and personal data needed to detect, investigate and remedy unauthorised access to be kept for one year, and Rule 8(3) requires personal data, traffic data and processing logs to be kept for a minimum of one year from the date of processing for the Seventh Schedule purposes, unless another law requires otherwise.
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